I do not agree with your logic:
“There is one madman who thinks differently, the conclusion is that everyone who thinks differently is madman.”
But that wasn’t the conclusion.
The conclusion is not to believe everything you see written down. Even if it’s written in a “real historical document”.
Right - well let’s see … I would say first …
All written documents could be falsified - that is what western “scientists” always can forget. Itis about Illig and Topper also Fomenko wrote.
If a written document does not supported by objects in real world those are just tales and fictions as you said.
I would not judge you as I do not know you, but from your answer - as you immediately rejected an another perspective - I would not discuss to you generally any theories about historical topics.
To put western science in case history to high standard is not a wise decision as they would always cover their back for their deadly wish to get back Roman Empire that built on slavery the most deadliest economical system for the masses…
Furtunately ancestors like Attila put an end to its progress.
Unfortunately we live again in modern slavery - that is kind of economical furnish – so conluding more cruel as it lies today present as progress into the bright future.
But the ice cream now licks back as we say so here in Hungary.
See environmental issues (tornados, and other high energy spinning winds around the world, tsunamis, atomic catastrophes, melting arctic ice, glaciers, growing see level, lost islands, reducing see shores,etc …)
The idiotic monoculture births new diseases in the agriculture.
People are generally deny to eat genetically modified food - now they were chased into that version to genetically modify themselves – and their relatives as well – via vaccination. Congratulations !
So much zombies nowadays, and not a real Neo here in our well planned urbanistic Matrix. It is not worth to tell anything to anyone who are still not woke up but still connected to official “anything” : science, media, goverment channels.
But the solution quite simple : check out different sources and compare them - use your own instincts and analitic mind.
Oh and yes, not everything real what written in books - but some yes, especially that sorted earlier to a legend.
Without Schliemann - who was laughed in that time until acted and found the buildings and streets of a legendary city and fortress - Troy would just a good ancient drama. This is where objects are supports WRITTEN “HIStory”.
Have a good day !
The name of the excluded discussion calls for the etymology of Vandalism.
Here’s what I know:
“Vandalism” is a Christian propaganda term coined by Christian priests exiled to islands near Italy who were very offended that they were expelled from temples and deprived of all gold and silverware.
Sitting in their monasteries, those priests have been writing stories of vandalism and uncivilization of Vandals for centuries.
Later, as Christianity began to spread throughout Europe, other historical documents were purposefully destroyed. Entire ancient libraries were burned. Even in later times, literature that did not agree with church policy was destroyed.
What are those vandals? Vandals, a warriors from the nation witch lived on the Vandalus River (such an ancient name for the Vistula river), the word have a Lithuanian origin and can be interpreted as “big water”.
The Vandals, who occupied Rome, preserved all Roman literature, much of which has survived to this day. What could not be said about Christians, wherever they went they purposefully destroyed local culture (be it Europe, America, or Asia).
So, modern “Vandalism” meaning is a lie.
The Vandals, like the Gothic, were an Eastern Germanic speaking tribe, so your explanation is a bit confusing.
Also, looking in to it, Lithuania was massively Polonised during the Polish - Lithuanian Commonwealth.
This is not true. Goths and vandals spoke ancient Lithuanian dialects. Their linguistic traces are found in Spain (even separate Lithuanian dialects can be traced), not to mention their proper names. In addition, historical sources (ignored) also state that the Goths are ancient Lithuanians. All modern Gothic Germanism is taken only from the discovery of the ancient Bible, written in the language of the Little Goths (it is how they are called in historic sources). German researchers mistakenly and unreasonably assign the language of the Little Goths to all Goths and Vandals. The analysis of the Little Goths language also shows that theirs language is full of Slavic and Baltic (Lithuanian) borrowings. The Little Goths lived between the Slavs and the ancient Lithuanians territory.
Not even scholars from your own country believe this.
At least 1 thing we are agree on it -
Except who were called mistakable as "Vandals’ by another tribes / nations in early Europe. 
Yes I know. It can only be noticed that most Lithuanian official researchers are trained in the Soviet Union or by Soviet educated people and all they work in government institutions. In Lithuania government institutions mostly still work in soviet style. But there are works by independent researchers.
Anyway, it’s not a matter of faith (well, apparently for some it’s a matter of faith and position with good salary), it’s a matter of facts.
In Lithuania, censorship is applied to these things, and any independent researcher cannot expect to work in a government institution or his work will be used by government institution. Although times are changing, Soviet-educated people are becoming less and less in power.
Okay, and for this reason I am out… you are basically using a combination of the Chewbacca defence
and the Adam Savage response…
When there is no possibility that you except reality, you obviously can’t be reasoned with. No point talking about it anymore.
I let you explain water
‘vödör’ in hungary means the object that helps
to lift up water from a dwell
carry some water from one place to another
People and another tribes who served together with tribes who spoke natively hungarian always heard to ask to carry a vodör ( bucket ) of water.
So they associated the word “vödör” with water, not the object, and after they used the word to reference to the liquid
as it sounds for a hungarian
water vódö’
voda voda
In hungarian the water is
remained ‘víz’
that means bring, carry something as
it is equally with hungarian verb ‘visz’
our language is very analitic and on another way as japanese or chinese,
but works in visually so our ancients recognized that its main property of living waters to roll / carry rocks, sands, wood, ice, boats, ships, etc.
So it is something that ‘visz’ as acting.
This way the river name Vistula or Visztula also can be explained in our language too.
But I won’t force anyone to agree on it.
vodör ( bucket )
in Russian this is “vedro”, seems you borrowed slavic word.
Explaining a word from another language based solely on the similarity of sounds is not a scientific matter. This is not enough for the etymology of the word.
Absolutely. Cod science.
So - Visa means “hard” in Finnish, so maybe the river was “hard”.
Vaten is Swedish for water, and vann is Norwegian. Maybe it was just “water?”.
Visa means “to show” in Swedish (vise in Norwegian) and this comes from the same root as “wise” in English, so maybe the river was “showing” a direction or “teaching” something or revered as “an intelligence”.
You can literally make up a cod etymology from thin air. This is what Edo Nyland did… that was the point of that comment. When you have to invent a reality to replace the established facts, it becomes more about faith (and fantasy) than fact (and reality) and is the root of most of what is wrong in society.
Anyway - I’m no longer reading this thread - I just liked what you were saying enough to add my own take on it.
- Period.
"- This is now twelwe characters, Ensign Discourse.
- Dismissed !"
Yeah, I like it … borrowed slavic word… (Really not - it was sarcasm.)
That is what Habsburgs tried in the time of their reign.
Thanks, we do not need such logic again.
Since when the masters would learn the language from their servants ?
(aka slavus – I suggest to look at latin dictionary)
When I wrote worked together I had not told how they worked together - who instrued whom.
And you can be sure masters would not give up their language for their servants - even if they are latin roman or scythian people, but the (slavus) servant will use a mixture that enables to communicate with their masters and other servants (slavus) who are in the same or familiar household, but which ones are from another tribe, Simple reason in this case : who ‘borrows’ whom.
More slavic tribes abandoned their language due to Roman Empire or later the vikings or normmanns (nord man).
The Huns ruled Europe for some time, but they were soon defeated by united European forces and fled to the rich lands of the Pannonia, where they mingled with a much larger number of locals. Thus, the Huns, although they imposed their language on the locals (Lithuanian and Slavic ancestors), they look now completely unlike the Asians. So who among you is a master now, and who is a slave? And so, no doubt, the Huns borrowed a lot of words from the locals.
Living in southern italy, my culture could indicate that the Vandals who, rather than invade imperial Rome in the west, invaded imperial Rome in the east, the byzantines, Constantinople …
Why do I say this? because I suspect the Vandals and the Mongols, they had the same root in common, but at a certain point in history we started to call them differently … There is more, it is said that there was a great empire, which was that of The Great Tartary … … why has this continent disappeared from history almost no longer known about its existence, while in the not too ancient maps it was marked ???
which more or less corresponds to the same territory that was that of the Mongols …
in pre-Christian Greek culture, the Greeks feared the deities of Tartarus
The Norman rulers of England (who spoke French) adopted the local language over time. The local language was of course descended from that which Saxon immigrants brought over from what is now Germany.
So rulers do adopt their vassals’ language sometimes.
And why would normann would speak French ?
Please use your brain and not simply tell us that can be heard on historical stuff in the school without the era in that existed. In school you were teached without questions so all little entity in classroom accepts all stupidity without questions from the absolute authority : the teacher. Now as adult all the people forgot to use their brain.
The so called French in modern tems does not eixst in that time. There were several languages by territories in Kingdom of France.
The king, 14th Louis of France, will force their citizen to use only so called “French” language in the whole kingdom and will be the official languge of the kingdom.
And why would normann would speak “French” ONLY ?
In that era the common language was latin – of course for nobles and priests who were educated well – soldiers, non-educated nobles, commoners could speak with other people if they had learned the necessary language(s) - so they had to learn the other peoples language or use a translator.
If you had followed the series Vikings, you could see Rollo accepts an invitation and marriage . This way he will became a “French” ruler but remained viking or normann if you like that way. As they descendants lived in such environment they must learn their mother language - for simplicity we can say “french”, but this way give up their language of their father ?
Hardly so – but for children the HIStory can be teached so to manipulate to accept only one autorization that tells the one and only truth. King, Queen or Government … it does not matter.
The right question who lived in ancient times there.
SCYTHIANS – as Great Alexandros was warned to fear scythians not the mongols. They were almost 1000 years later. In the ‘great times’ of greeks the scythians were the gretest warriors and nation by history.
All sorrunded empires forgot that they came into inner Asia from Carpathian Basin and growth to get to all steppes of whole Asia.
Only when people from North and South settled among their wide route in Asian steppes and they funded settled kingdoms and empires then they must start to form also settled territories in Tarim Basin, besides Ural, at Black Sea, and in the Caucasus as well.
But they had never forget the ancient Mother Land the Carpathian Basin.
This way came back time-to-time to help the still living Scythians who remained there. The Carpathian Basin was never empty.
This way longobard and other nations had to leave – they were helped to get out. This way did Attila who also settled there and put his palace at Tisza river.
The last help of Motherland – regulation from aggressive and looter armies , enemies – happened when Hungarians arrived to strengten their hunnish relatives who still lived there and suffered from different earlier servant tribes and degenerated western relatives, the descendants of hunnish and allied forces who took with Aladar (one of eldest son of Attila) and their western alliencies after death of Attila.
They established their homeland and named as God’s place there - in hungarian ’ ÚR-ság or ‘Uruszág’ or today ‘Ország’ that is Country in english.
But as I wrote the timescale was manipulated
just check what did Attila’s huns in Italy and you will find that how similar that later the gothic king Alarik did as well some time later.
What a coincidence how similar. ( No, i’t’s not – it is sarcasm. It just proves how poor some cheaters artistic skills : simply copy the activities of several different historical figures … it won’t be conspicuous for simple minds.)